BARRON v. BALTIMORE (1833): Did the state or city relent and compensate Barron? (Paul Finkelman)

Paul Finkelman has asked R. B. Bernstein to post this question:
 

I recall that after Barron v. Baltimore that the city or state actually compensated him; does anyone know if that is true?

Paul Finkelman

Senior Fellow, University of Pennsylvania Program on Democracy, Citizenship, and Constitutionalism

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